The propriety of the EOGMs:
The respondents raised the point that the EOGMs held to consider the collective sale did not comprise any voting and were therefore void or invalid. This argument holds no substance. Under para 1(c) of the Schedule to the LTSA, the EOGMs are held to “consider” the sale; there is no requirement for any voting or any passing of any resolution.
"There is no requirement for any voting or any passing of any resolution" when it comes to considering the sale. Now I've long discovered that in matters of law, there is no black and white, and it remains to be seen if AR Paul Tan's argument about "consider" will be used against owners who wish to vote or pass a resolution. Of course, if the committee chairing the EOGM allows for a vote to be passed, it gives them a stronger mandate (since it does not require them to do so) and that speaks a lot more for that estate's sincere attempt for transparency and fairness to all owners. But will estates do this, or will they merely "consider"?
Now note that ngiamsw's quote of p26 of the amendment bill on the Notice on General Meetings (2nd Schedule) that the clause to "consider" (2b) is separate from the clause to vote (2d). So what can be voted? (1) in respect of each considered proposed resolution (2d) and (2) the election of members of the collective sales committee (2d).
So here is where things get tricky. I quoted the 3rd Schedule which lists the various purposes of the general meeting, most of which are "to consider". But 2nd Schedule requires a notice of the GM to be delivered to owners, which must include the proposed resolutions. So can an owner vote ("may vote in respect of each proposed resolution" - "may" not "can" or "must"; "may" infers option)?
There's therefore 2 interpretations, and until a ruling is made or a clarification is made on this matter - the court is still out on it.
- (A) In accordance with AR Paul Tan's ruling, 3rd Schedule's various "consider" means that no voting is necessary - a resolution need not have a vote, although the sales committee might invite for such a vote.
- (B) Every resolution should require a vote, which means at every general meeting #1-4 there will be voting on the various purposes as outlined in the previous post.
So what can owners do? If interpretation A is the correct one, while SCs are under no compulsion to vote, they can be pressured to do so; after all, it gives them a strong mandate and they have to be convinced of their own conviction that the process will result in a successful sale, right?
Hope I'm not losing people in this interpretation of the general meetings (which ultimately, is my own interpretation... so "consider" it lol). Do let me know if this is a wrong interpretation; I welcome comments on this. What is not for consideration is the VOTE on the right hand side, with only a few days left!
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